As the opening of the league’s transactional market is just at least a month away, the Chicago Bulls are gearing for a productive work to acquire much-needed assets to emerge in the now challenging Eastern Conference.
And with the latest, they are eyeing to gain the rights of two of the towering centers in the league.
Kevin O’Connor of The Ringer has penned recently that both Rudy Gobert and Mitchell Robinson are on the radar for the Bulls this offseason.
Sources have also indicated the Bulls are a team with interest in Gobert (and other centers on the market, including Knicks free agent Mitchell Robinson).
The Athletic’s Tony Jones has noted that Gobert is gaining tons of interest around the league following the Quin Snyder departure. As such, if the Bulls would want to present their own offer to the Jazz, they have to match the big man’s $170 million contract over the next four years — which would mean that Nikola Vucevic will be on a potential package.
But if they manage to pull off this deal, having the service of Gobert secures more financial commitment, which also fits on their ongoing title-contending timeline under the DeMar Derozan-Zach LaVine leadership.
Meanwhile, Robinson, who is set to become an unrestricted free agent, might look for a bigger payday and a much larger role in a joining club. The Bulls are set to get over the cap should Zach LaVine decide to ink a hefty extension, and they can only offer a full mid-level exception for the 24-year-old center.
Having Gobert or Robinson is Chicago’s ultimate wish and would hugely fill the void in their interior defensive presence. As such, this landing can only be determined since both are truly focal frontcourt attractions of the other teams this summer.